• You may have to login or register before you can post and view our exclusive members only forums.
    To start viewing messages, select the forum that you want to visit from the selection below.

Rodgers' wife wants 51 house and half his wages.

Status
Not open for further replies.
If the assets are jointly owned, she has a right to them anyway. If they are her husband's assets acquired independently or from his own inheritance, why should she have a right to a share/percentage in them?

We aren't privy as to how the assets were required. For all we know they could have been acquired off the back of her own inheritance. I'm assuming they met at an early age, got married, had kids. They were a team and a family unit who made decision together. Rodgers became successful in his managerial career which afforded them a lavish lifestyle. Now they are split she'll be entitled to receive x amount to return her to the standard of living she was accustomed to or a standard where she can cope independently. Case closed really. Hopefully they both find happiness elsewhere.
 
This debate is getting lost in semantics I think. Peter's usage of the term 'flat' is a bit of misnomer. I've already explained that I think he meant a gross sum rather than a fixed sum in every case (of course I could be reading him wrong, so I'll just let him explain what 'he' meant).

As for myself, of course I agree that the sum will be variable from case to case. But the factors that make it a variable should be centred around her lack of means, loss of opportunity and burden of raising kids (if it exists) and how to compensate that rather than being centred around the husband's wealth.

So in essence she's making her case for as big a slice of the cake as possible based on what she put in to it.

If it's not a "flat rate" applicable to each and every case then it must be founded on whatever assets the relationship developed.
 
Mors and Peter against the world.

8581c9c96162339d6318e234ce075d56.jpg
 
We aren't privy as to how the assets were required. For all we know they could have been acquired off the back of her own inheritance. I'm assuming they met at an early age, got married, had kids. They were a team and a family unit who made decision together. Rodgers became successful in his managerial career which afforded them a lavish lifestyle. Now they are split she'll be entitled to receive x amount to return her to the standard of living she was accustomed to or a standard where she can cope independently. Case closed really. Hopefully they both find happiness elsewhere.

This
 
I'm pretty sure the law treats marriage like a contractual relationship entered into by any two people. It's nothing to do with their lives, and who's right or wrong, or who should be rewarded. It's just a bastardized version of contract law principles, with a little bit of additional lip-service given to the welfare of the kids.

Except, this contract between them isn't written down, hasn't been drafted by a solicitor with tonnes of clauses and conditions, it's just a vague agreement depending upon who said what when. So as long as you are prepared to lie, you can convince the court that your particular marriage contract entitled you to millions and millions, and then roll the dice, see what happens and if you get lucky. I would do the same, why not because fresh after the break-up you have sufficient hatred of the other person. It's what you get for entering into a contract based on your penis.
 
Everyone knows divorce is an expensive process for which you'll inevitably get fucked, especially if you're male and rich. It's hard to have much in the way of sympathy.

The whole idea of it just seems bonkers to me.
 
Everyone knows divorce is an expensive process for which you'll inevitably get fucked, especially if you're male and rich. It's hard to have much in the way of sympathy.

The whole idea of it just seems bonkers to me.


Maybe don't stick your dick in the office travel coordinator and you won't run into such bother.
 
We aren't privy as to how the assets were required. For all we know they could have been acquired off the back of her own inheritance. I'm assuming they met at an early age, got married, had kids. They were a team and a family unit who made decision together. Rodgers became successful in his managerial career which afforded them a lavish lifestyle. Now they are split she'll be entitled to receive x amount to return her to the standard of living she was accustomed to or a standard where she can cope independently. Case closed really. Hopefully they both find happiness elsewhere.
I was making a general point. Wasn't really commenting on the specifics of Rodgers case. But if the property was acquired jointly, then she doesn't need recourse to maintenance law. She has part ownership of those assets anyway.
 
Why should the other half be compensated for a 'loss of a career' etc? If they chose to give up work, and stay at home, then that's their call is it not? Why should the wealthier other half have to pay out for a decision the other party made? It's not like they've been imprisoned against their will?
Again, removing kids from any equations, I don't understand how a partner voluntarily giving up work, and living off the other half's wages, should be entitled to any significant chunk of it after they separate. And we all know, that even if the other half is unfaithful, and a complete nightmare from day one, they would still be entitled to a significant financial settlement, purely based on them having a ring on their finger.

I would think in most cases it's a joint decision.
 
Everyone knows divorce is an expensive process for which you'll inevitably get fucked, especially if you're male and rich. It's hard to have much in the way of sympathy.

The whole idea of it just seems bonkers to me.

Yep.... I know.... imagine standing in front of someone and swearing you'll stick with them for richer or poorer, in sickness and in health, until death us do part.

And then not.

And then suggesting some sort of compensation "flat rate" that isn't a flat rate but is based on lots of conditions (as long as it isn't a percentage of the financially dominant partner).

Yep.

I'd go with bonkers.
 
Oh Jesus - surely not.

Re: Mors post


He slipped this in earlier too: Women couldn't give a flying fuck who he manages when he's earning that wedge. 'yeah liverchester utd, awesome. We still going to Tiffany's this afternoon?'

It's cool though, he's not talking about Mr Rodgers. He's talking 'bout bitches.
 
If they were acquired jointly it can only have been done so to avoid Rodgers paying tax. In which case his gamble has gone a little bit wrong, and to save a few hundred thousand in tax it will cost him half his portfolio. It is not too different from his transfer policy to be honest.
 
He slipped this in earlier too: Women couldn't give a flying fuck who he manages when he's earning that wedge. 'yeah liverchester utd, awesome. We still going to Tiffany's this afternoon?'

It's cool though, he's not talking about Mr Rodgers. He's talking 'bout bitches.

Mark would be on him if he talked about Rodgers.
 
So in essence she's making her case for as big a slice of the cake as possible based on what she put in to it.

If it's not a "flat rate" applicable to each and every case then it must be founded on whatever assets the relationship developed.

In agreement with the first para. She has every right to, and it is logical that someone who puts in more into a marriage should be entitled to more than someone like a WAG etc. No quarrel with that.

Don't agree with the bolded part. Or rather I don't understand it.

If the couple developed assets jointly, they should be jointly held.

If the husband holds the assets exclusively in his own name, the law says they are *his* assets. That's property law.

Are you saying that maintenance law should stipulate that once a man/woman gets married, any property purchased in his/her name should be deemed to be a joint asset?! That's an utterly ridiculous and unfair proposition.

I think it's better if we broke this down into two simple questions about maintenance law?

1. What should be the starting point of negotiations (from the perspective of the law) for maintenance? -
My answer in terms of the other spouse's assets is 0%
2. Who should the burden of proof lie on?
My answer is the spouse claiming maintenance.

I'm assuming your answers are 50% and the spouse defending maintenance. That to me is very unreasonable.
 
If the husband holds the assets exclusively in his own name, the law says they are *his* assets. That's property law.

Are you saying that maintenance law should stipulate that once a man/woman gets married, any property purchased in his/her name should be deemed to be a joint asset?! That's an utterly ridiculous and unfair proposition.


I think it should be jointly owned, yes, unless you do something to say otherwise, like a pre-nup or whatever. The whole idea is that you are equal and share everything, and you should have to make exceptions to deal with it otherwise.
 
In agreement with the first para. She has every right to, and it is logical that someone who puts in more into a marriage should be entitled to more than someone like a WAG etc. No quarrel with that.

Don't agree with the bolded part. Or rather I don't understand it.

If the couple developed assets jointly, they should be jointly held.

If the husband holds the assets exclusively in his own name, the law says they are *his* assets. That's property law.

Are you saying that maintenance law should stipulate that once a man/woman gets married, any property purchased in his/her name should be deemed to be a joint asset?! That's an utterly ridiculous and unfair proposition.

I think it's better if we broke this down into two simple questions about maintenance law?

1. What should be the starting point of negotiations (from the perspective of the law) for maintenance? -
My answer in terms of the other spouse's assets is 0%
2. Who should the burden of proof lie on?
My answer is the spouse claiming maintenance.

I'm assuming your answers are 50% and the spouse defending maintenance. That to me is very unreasonable.

Are you saying if a couple, married in law, purchase a property or properties, then they aren't jointly owned.

Does that mean if one parent spends more time with the kids then they aren't jointly owned.

Maybe The solution is that the ex takes possession of the children, since she brought them up and charges Rodgers a "flat fee" every time he has any interaction with the "family assets" she put her effort in to raising.


Maybe she can determine what the rate for phone conversations with their daughter is.
 
If a couple purchases a property together, it is obviously jointly owned. But if the husband goes out to buy a shaving blade of his own money, the law doesn't deem that it belongs to the wife as well!

The rest of your post doesn't deserve a response.
 
From what I understand of his argument, he's saying there should be a gross/flat sum calculated on the basis of a number of factors, including the raising of kids, loss of career opportunity etc. and not that there should be a specified flat sum in every case. As opposed to a percentage of the husband's assets.

Which seems to me to be entirely reasonable, and exactly the way the law works around here. I don't know about English law, but if it entitles a spouse to a percentage of the husband's income/assets, it's utterly ridiculous.


I think what he's saying is that she should be compensated on the basis of the wages of a maid and nanny.
 
No I'm not. Stop saying I am.



No, I think it'd be fair if he was offered a choice between compensating her for raising the children and letting her keep them.


Now that is an interesting suggestion.
Instead of separating Rodgers' career from their marriage like you have previously done, you now suggest a monetary price on the children.

How much should Rodgers have to pay for seeing his kids?
Because he has to pay right, otherwise he has no right to see them.Them being a commodity and all...belonging to her.

From her point of view, how much ransom should the wife demand for Rodgers to be able to see his kids occasionally? Hmm...
 
dmishra has interpreted my arguments correctly and I agree with everything else that he's added.

Sorry, don't really have time to reply to specific posts.
 
If a couple purchases a property together, it is obviously jointly owned. But if the husband goes out to buy a shaving blade of his own money, the law doesn't deem that it belongs to the wife as well!

The rest of your post doesn't deserve a response.


The question though is, is it his money or their money that he bought the blade with?
 
The question though is, is it his money or their money that he bought the blade with?

Perhaps my knowledge of English law is actually non-existent, so I'll ask someone to clarify. Are married couples taxed as one unit in the UK? If they are, then a lot of my arguments will need to be revisited.

The legal system I come from (which is largely based on English common law) does not tax a married couple as one unit. The two individuals are treated separately, as having separate sources of income, and having individual property rights.

So to answer your question in my legal sytem, I can say categorically that it would be 'his' money and not 'their' money. The law doesn't recognise 'their' money at all.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top Bottom